Hogan Zeroes

Thursday, June 09, 2005


Reefer Madness

I admit I am having policy logic problems with the recent medical marijuana/Commerce Clause Supreme Court decision. Others may have brought this up and I may have missed it. But I have to ask: if federally putting an end to the production of marijuana that is grown legally (under local laws) at home for home medical use is done for the ostensible reason of regulating interstate commerce, doesn't that logically mean that the federal government is intervening to protect the interstate illegal nationwide commerce in the noxious weed?

Forget the Constitution text, does this pass the "rational relationship" test?

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